All India Bar Examination
AIBE - 15 - Jan 2021 - Set A
AIBE - 15 - Jan 2021 - Set A
Note: Hover over these colored boxes for correct answers
1. Section 66A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in the case of
(a) Justice K. S. Putta swamy Vs Union of India
(b) M P Sharma Vs Satish Chandra
(c) Shreya Singhal Vs Union Of India
(d) Gagan Harsh Sharma Vs The State of Maharashtra
Correct option is
(c)
2. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of
(a) The Workmen Vs Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors
(b) John Joseph Khokar Vs Bhadange B. S. & ors
(c) A. Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa
(d) Dinesh Sharma and Ors. Vs State of Bihar
Correct option is
(c)
3. According to Factories Act
(a) "child" means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age;
(b) "child" means a person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age
(c) "child" means a person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age
(d) "child" means a person who has not completed his sixteenth year of age
Correct option is
(a)
4. The UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act.- held in the case of
(a) Union of India Vs East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd.,
(b) Union of India Vs M.C. Mehta
(c) Tata Press Ltd Vs Union of India
(d) Union of India Vs Indian Change Chrome Ltd
Correct option is
(a)
5. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in—
(a) a document signed by the parties;
(b) an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement;
(c) an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
6. Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is mentioned under --------- of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 22
Correct option is
(b)
7. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title.- Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
(a) Section 92
(b) Section 124
(c) Section 115
(d) Section 101
Correct option is
(c)
8. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals
(a) The Arbitration Act, 1940,
(b) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
(c) the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
9. Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the concept of
(a) Unlawful Assembly
(b) Arrest without warrant
(c) search and seizures
(d) Plea bargaining
Correct option is
(d)
10. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under
(a) Section 109 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 110 of Cr.P.C
(c) Section 111 of Cr.P.C.
(d) None of the above
Correct option is
(b)
11. X,Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently X,Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay ?
(a) A can, under Section 43 para 1
(b) A can under Section 49 para 1
(c) A cannot and will have to wait till X,Y become traceable
(d) Z can be compelled only for one third
Correct option is
(a)
12. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as
(a) Agency
(b) Bailment
(c) Guarantee
(d) Contingency
Correct option is
(b)
13. Section 14A inserted by the THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to
(a) Power of the Courts to engage experts
(b) Establishment of Special Court
(c) Expeditious disposal of case
(d) Specific performance with regard to contracts
Correct option is
(a)
14. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under ------------------- of the Constitution
(a) Article 323B
(b) Article 323A
(c) Article 233
(d) Article 323
Correct option is
(b)
15. The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under
(a) Section 3 of the Advocate Act, 1961
(b) Section 7 (1)(b) of the Advocate Act, 1961
(c) Section 17 of the Advocate Act, 1961
(d) Section 18 of the Advocate Act, 1961
Correct option is
(b)
16. According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the bar Council of India has power to make rules
(a) qualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for such membership
(b) the class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
(c) the standards of legal education to be observed by universities in India and the inspection of universities for that purpose.
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
17. Requisites of a valid adoption : no adoption shall be valid unless- (i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption; (ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so; (iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter. – mentioned under
(a) Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(b) Section 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(c) Section 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(d) Section 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Correct option is
(a)
18. According to the Muslim women(protection of rights on marriage) act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be
(a) Void
(b) Cognizable
(c) compoundable
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
19. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSA) 2005 provides for women:
(a) coparcenary rights at par with men;
(b) inheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her brothers;
(c) inheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased husband
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
20. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for
(a) Custody of the Children
(b) Permanent alimony and maintenance
(c) Maintenance Pendente lite
(d) Division of matrimonial property
Correct option is
(b)
21. A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under
(a) Section 18 (2) (f) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(b) Section 18 (2) (d) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(c) Section 18 (2) (a) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(d) Section 18 (2) (g) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Correct option is
(c)
22. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt under
(a) Section 33 of CPC
(b) Section 35A of CPC
(c) Section 30 of CPC
(d) Section 35 of CPC
Correct option is
(b)
23. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant
(a) O.5 R.19A
(b) O.5 R.19
(c) O.5 R.20
(d) O.5 R.21
Correct option is
(c)
24. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act;
(a) The facts that A asked C to lend him money,
(b) D said to C in A’s presence and hearing–– “I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees,”
(c) A went away without making any answer
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
25. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under
(a) Section 25 of the Evidence Act
(b) Section 26 of the Evidence Act
(c) Section 27 of the Evidence Act
(d) Section 29 of the Evidence Act
Correct option is
(c)
26. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. – this is under ------------------ of the Evidence Act
(a) Section 42
(b) Section 45
(c) Section 50
(d) Section 55
Correct option is
(b)
27. According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, ‘environmental pollutant’ means
(a) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment
(b) only gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
(c) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
(d) any solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
Correct option is
(c)
28. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with reference to
(a) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
(b) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
(c) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(d) both A & B
Correct option is
(d)
29. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication – is known as
(a) Pharming
(b) Smishing
(c) Phishing
(d) Didling
Correct option is
(c)
30. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of
(a) 7 years.
(b) 10 years
(c) 11 years
(d) 14 years
Correct option is
(a)
31. “From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190(1) Cr PC.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence….In other words, the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.PC.” – This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of
(a) Nalini Vs State of Tamilnadu
(b) Raj Singh Vs State [(1998)]
(c) Shamsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
(d) State of Himachal Pradesh Vs Tara Dutta
Correct option is
(b)
32. Indemnity contract is defined under
(a) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
(b) Section 67 of the Indian Contract Act
(c) Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act
(d) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act
Correct option is
(a)
33. Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to
(a) Coercion
(b) Fraud
(c) Mistake of fact
(d) Mistake of law
Correct option is
(b)
34. Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?
(a) Section 162
(b) Section 164
(c) Section 163A
(d) Section 165
Correct option is
(b)
35. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section ---- of Cr.P.C.
(a) 83
(b) 82
(c) 85
(d) 86
Correct option is
(a)
36. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section ------ of Cr.P.C
(a) 201
(b) 204
(c) 205
(d) 200
Correct option is
(c)
37. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of ‘Transformative Constitutionalism’ in the case of
(a) Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018)
(b) Suresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation(2010)
(c) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
(d) Aruna Roy Vs Union of India, (2002)
Correct option is
(a)
38. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by
(a) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
(b) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
(c) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
39. Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C deals
(a) Forfeiture of property in certain cases.
(b) Notice of forfeiture of property
(c) Management of properties seized or forfeited
(d) Identifying unlawfully acquired property
Correct option is
(a)
40. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation – is dealt under
(a) Section 178 of Cr. P.C.
(b) Section 469 of Cr. P.C.
(c) Section 478 of Cr. P.C.
(d) Section 168 of Cr. P.C.
Correct option is
(d)
41. “decree-holder” means
(a) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
(b) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order incapable of execution has been made
(c) any Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
(d) any corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
Correct option is
(a)
42. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?
(a) a method of agriculture or horticulture
(b) a presentation of information
(c) topography of integrated circuits
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
43. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre-existing
(a) GATT
(b) BIRPI
(c) TPRM
(d) PCT
Correct option is
(b)
44. Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union Of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ
(a) for setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of communication including Internet have been shut down in J&K
(b) for setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was sought to be acquired in J&K
(c) for setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K was constituted as a UT
(d) for setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.
Correct option is
(a)
45. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Art. 19(1) (a ) read with Article 19 (2) in the case of
(a) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India
(b) Kharak singh Vs State of U.P.
(c) Govinda Vs State of M.P.
(d) Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India
Correct option is
(d)
46. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be….
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Nine
Correct option is
(c)
47. The utility of Public Interest Litigation
(a) Liberalised locus standi
(b) The proceedings are Non-Adversarial
(c) Procedural requirements are liberalized
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
48. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the state of Bihar in repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public has ‘sufficient interest’ to maintain a petition under Article 32 – This relates to the case of
(a) Parmanand Katara Vs Union of India - AIR 1989, SC 2039
(b) D.C.Wadhwa Vs State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579
(c) Neeraja Choudhari Vs State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 1984SC1099
(d) Chameli Singh Vs State of U.P. AIR 1996,SC1051
Correct option is
(b)
49. Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate class of persons, in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons.” – Justice Bhagwati in the case of
(a) Peoples Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India
(b) Ashok Kumar Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
(c) S. P. Gupta Vs Union of India
(d) Janata Dal Vs H. S. Chowdhary
Correct option is
(c)
50. The definition of ‘money’ under GST law does not include
(a) Letter of Credit
(b) Currency held for numismatic value
(c) Pay order
(d) Traveler cheque
Correct option is
(b)
51. Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by
(a) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
(b) Respective Governors of the State
(c) The President
(d) A collective body of Union and States
Correct option is
(c)
52. The definition of Contract is defined under
(a) Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act.
(b) Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act.
(c) Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act.
(d) Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act.
Correct option is
(b)
53. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under
(a) Section 326 B of the Indian Penal Code
(b) Section 120 B of the Indian Penal Code
(c) Section 509 of the Indian Penal Code
(d) Section 295B of the Indian Penal Code
Correct option is
(a)
54. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is
(a) An Offence of murder
(b) An offence of Culpable homicide
(c) Not an offence
(d) An Offence of causing grievous hurt
Correct option is
(c)
55. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z's handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search – A has committed an Offence under
(a) Section 256 of IPC
(b) Section 192 of IPC
(c) Section 195 A of IPC
(d) Section 201 of IPC
Correct option is
(b)
56. India, that is Bharat, shall be a
(a) Federation of States
(b) quasi federal
(c) Union of states
(d) Unitary state of a special type
Correct option is
(c)
57. In M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case) the court held that
(a) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
(b) In escape of a dangerous animal the owner is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
(c) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
(d) A company or a corporation is not a state and hence not liable for leak of toxic gas affecting the health of the people
Correct option is
(a)
58. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as
(a) A Contract of Uberrimae fide
(b) Implied Agency
(c) Quantum meruit
(d) De nova contract
Correct option is
(c)
59. Agreement is
(a) a promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other
(b) enforceable by law
(c) enforceable contract
(d) Un enforceable by law
Correct option is
(a)
60. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression “land” includes
(a) benefits to arise out of land
(b) things attached to the earth
(c) things permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
61. Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference as to compensation exists is provided under
(a) Section 32 of Land Acquisition Act
(b) Section 30 of Land Acquisition Act
(c) Section 35 of Land Acquisition Act
(d) Section 31 of Land Acquisition Act
Correct option is
(c)
62. Suits by indigent persons is dealt under
(a) Order 44 of C.P.C
(b) Order 33 of C.P.C
(c) Order 55 of C.P.C
(d) Order 22 of C.P.C
Correct option is
(b)
63. Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under
(a) Section 6 of the Evidence Act
(b) Section 17 of the Evidence Act
(c) Section 18 of the Evidence Act
(d) Section 20 of the Evidence Act
Correct option is
(a)
64. Among other things, the Function of Bar council of India includes laying down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. – Under which section of the Advocates Act
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 9
(d) Section 6
Correct option is
(a)
65. According to Justice ‘Abbot Parry’ what are the “Seven Lamps of Advocacy”.
(a) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) professionalism (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
(b) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
(c) (i) influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
(d) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) seriousness (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
Correct option is
(b)
66. Minimum number of Directors in a Public company
(a) 3
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 5
Correct option is
(a)
67. An associate company, in relation to another company, means
(a) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
(b) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
(c) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and does not include a joint venture company
(d) a company in which that other company has full shares, and is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
Correct option is
(b)
68. The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of
(a) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs Union of India (2011)
(b) Common Cause Vs Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1.
(c) Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab (1996)
(d) D Chenna Jagadeeswar Vs State of A.P. ( 1988)
Correct option is
(b)
69. Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about
(a) Doctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with reference to civil servants
(b) Doctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil servants
(c) Doctrine of natural justice with reference to civil servants
(d) Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants
Correct option is
(d)
70. Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the election flow from
(a) Article 19 (1)(a)
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 13
(d) Article 14
Correct option is
(a)
71. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression ‘liberty’ is followed by the words
(a) Of status and opportunity
(b) Of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
(c) Assuring the dignity of the individual
(d) Justice, social economic and political
Correct option is
(b)
72. According to Income Tax Act "zero coupon bond" means a bond
(a) issued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank on or after the 1st day of June, 2005;
(b) in respect of which no payment and benefit is received or receivable before maturity or redemption from infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank
(c) which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify in this behalf.
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
73. Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by
(a) The Constitution (one hundred and first) Act 2016
(b) The Constitution (one hundred and second) Act 2016
(c) The Constitution (eighty fourth) Act 2016
(d) The Constitution (seventy seven) Act 2016
Correct option is
(a)
74. A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of them. – under which section of the India Evidence Act.
(a) Section 12
(b) Section 6
(c) Section 3
(d) Section 5
Correct option is
(b)
Correct option is
(b)
75. Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with
(a) Documentary Evidence
(b) Exclusion of Oral Evidence
(c) Burden of proof as to ownership
(d) Proof of guilt.
Correct option is
(c)
76. Section 113(a) of the Evidence Act deals with
(a) Presumption as to abetment of murder
(b) Presumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a woman
(c) Presumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
(d) Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
Correct option is
(d)
77. In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in issue
(a) Queen Empress Vs Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Niharendu Dutt Mazumdar Vs Emperor
(c) Kedar Nath singh Vs State of Bihar
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
78. Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. – is an offence under
(a) Section 295
(b) Section 295A
(c) Section 265A
(d) Section 276
Correct option is
(b)
79. Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except
(a) A sentence of death
(b) Imprisonment for life
(c) Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
80. Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil procedure is dealt under
(a) Section 21A
(b) Section 15
(c) Section 21B
(d) Section 83
Correct option is
(d)
81. An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code 1908 as per order XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor – is known as
(a) IT Order
(b) Garnishee Order
(c) Decree Holder order
(d) Bank Order
Correct option is
(b)
82. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with
(a) Interpleader suit
(b) Interlocutory Order
(c) Restitution Order
(d) Attachment Order
Correct option is
(a)
83. Vis major means
(a) Act of God
(b) Act of Individual
(c) Act of other party
(d) Act of plaintiff
Correct option is
(a)
84. According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means
(a) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(b) an act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(c) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(d) None of the above
Correct option is
(a)
85. In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the committal of a wrongful act, are known as
(a) Abettors
(b) Joint tortfeasors.
(c) Tort holders
(d) Tort holders in common
Correct option is
(b)
86. M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India 1986 Shriram food and Fertilisers case relates to
(a) Olieum Gas leak
(b) Ganga water cleaning
(c) Child labour
(d) Bonded labour
Correct option is
(a)
87. A. K.Kraipak Vs Union of India relates to
(a) Likelihood of Bias
(b) Delegated Legislation
(c) Administrative Discretion
(d) Notice
Correct option is
(a)
88. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of
(a) Doctrine of Ultravires
(b) Malafides
(c) Exclusion of Judicial Review
(d) All of the above
Correct option is
(d)
89. The principle of Res Judicata is dealt under Section ---- of CPC
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Correct option is
(c)
90. Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with
(a) Presumption as to decisions of tribunals
(b) Presumption as to foreign judgments
(c) Presumption as to judgments of the lower court
(d) Presumption as to judgments of High Court
Correct option is
(b)
91. A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A
(a) Only in Delhi
(b) Only in Kolkata
(c) in both the place of Delhi and Kolkata
(d) either in Kolkata or in Delhi.
Correct option is
(d)
92. "Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability" - Justice Krishna Iyer . Name the case.
(a) Chandramalai Estate Vs Its workmen
(b) Associated Cement Ltd., Vs Their workmen
(c) Gujarat Steel Tubes Vs Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
(d) Indian General Navigation of Railway Co. Ltd., Vs Their workmen
Correct option is
(c)
93. A workman aggrieved by the order of …………………………………. may directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government
(a) Dismissal, discharge and retrenchment
(b) Dismissal , discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service
(c) Discharge simpliciter exclusively
(d) Dismissal and retrenchment exclusively
Correct option is
(b)
94. The national consumer dispute redressal commission was constituted in the year
(a) 1988
(b) 1998
(c) 1999
(d) 1997
Correct option is
(a)
95. What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act,1986
(a) 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(b) 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(c) 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(d) 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
Correct option is
(d)
96. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of.
(a) 14 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 21 years
Correct option is
(b)
97. R. V. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that
(a) Killing an innocent life to save his own is not a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder
(b) Necessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder, killing an innocent life to save his own may become inevitable
(c) Killing out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder.
(d) None of the above
Correct option is
(a)
98. On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 , in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for
(a) Section 6
(b) section 10
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 13
Correct option is
(a)
99. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to
(a) Void marriages
(b) Voidable marriages
(c) Ceremonies of Hindu marriage
(d) Conditions of Hindu marriage
Correct option is
(d)
100. A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncles son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is
(a) Valid
(b) Voidable
(c) Void
(d) Valid only in north India
Correct option is
(c)
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